Question Of The Day

3 comments October 28th, 2008at 06:25pm Posted by Eli

Why do our laws place so little importance on the integrity of our elections?  I was reading this story about Republicans in VA pulling out the ol’ “Democrats vote on November 5th” gambit, and then towards the end, the story says that the VA government made it a class 1 misdemeanor to mislead people about where or when to vote.

Why is this not a felony???  Hell, perverting the democratic process should be considered treason.  The dirty tricksters should be afraid to pull these stunts rather than saying “Hey, why not, what’s the worst that could happen?”

(h/t TRex)

Entry Filed under: Constitution,Corruption/Cronyism,Elections,Politics,Republicans,Wankers

3 Comments

  • 1. woody  |  October 28th, 2008 at 8:01 pm

    Laws do not protect against voting irregularities, because laws exist mainly to protect the rulers from the insolence of the unruly.

    Incumbents have NO wish to expand the franchise, because there is at least a 50-50 chance that a new voter could vote AGAINST the incumbent.

    Meanwhile, it is Incumbents who write and enforce the voting laws. They have no incentive–and actual dis-incentives–to scrupulously uphold laws which threaten their incumbency.

  • 2. Eli  |  October 28th, 2008 at 8:02 pm

    I actually make this exact point whenever the possibility of public campaign financing comes up. It’s a great idea that would fix a *lot* of root problems, but I just don’t see incumbents voting for it. And last I saw, incumbents are the only ones who get a vote.

  • 3. woody  |  October 29th, 2008 at 3:00 pm

    yup


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